[[Mod. note -- Yes, there are multiple flaws in this reasoning:
1. In Newtonian mechanics, the concept of "force" is more general than
*contact* force. For example, a magnet can exert a force on an iron
object without every being in contact.
2. In Newtonian mechanics, a force applied to an object does not
*necessarily* result in a contraction/elongation of that object.
A contraction/elongation is the result of *differential* motion
of different subparts of the object
if a force
(such as a uniform Newtonian gravitational field) is applied to
every part of the object such that F/m has the same value for
every subpart, then there's no contraction/elongation of the
object.
3. "Is it more correct to say that force is that thing that generates
acceleration or is it better to say that it is that thing that
generates tension?"
Neither of those is quite right as an operational definition for
force in Newtonian mechanics.
You'd be better off with something
like "*net* force is the thing that generates acceleration".
There's
a very clear, concise, and readable discussion of this in chapter 3
(particularly section 3.4, "Operational Definition of a Numerical
Scale of Force") of
Arnold B. Arons
"A Guide to Introductory Physics Teaching"
Wiley, 1990
ISBN 0-471-51341-5
4. Notably, the operational definition and the associated reasoning
described by Arons do NOT make use of of Hooke's law in any way.
Hooke's law is a separate logical construct, which may or may not
hold for any given compressible object in any situation.
There are two inertias: there is the inertia of the body that persists
in its rectilinear and uniform motion and this is not a real force and
there is the inertia of the body that opposes the external force and
this is a real force.
It is true that Hooke's law is a special case because it only concerns elastic bodies, but what body is not elastic?
All bodies are compressible because even the most rigid ones have a
degree of elasticity other than zero.
In article <vne5fv$2i6se$1@dont-email.me>, Luigi Fortunati asked:
It is true that Hooke's law is a special case because it only concerns elastic bodies, but what body is not elastic?
If you compress an elastic body, and then remove the compression, the
body will rebound (that's part of the definition of the word "elastic"
in physics). But if if I take a lump of modeling clay and squish it
(e.g., I apply a leftward force to the left side of the lump, and a
rightward force to the right side of the lump), and then remove the
applied forces, the clay won't rebound. We conclude that mdodeling
clay is not an elastic body.
In general, the property of being elastic or not being elastic depends
on both the body and the size and time dependence of the forces applied.
For example, if I push on a car's bumper with my hand, I'm probably not strong enough to deform the bumper non-elasticly. But if I hit the
bumper with a sledge-hammer, I may well permanently deform the bumper,
i.e., deform it non-elasticly.
All bodies are compressible because even the most rigid ones have a degree of elasticity other than zero.
I think you need to restrict this statement to *macroscopic* bodies:
We can certainly apply forces to an electron, but I don't think it's meaningful to refer to "compressing an electron". (At least according
to the best physics theories we have today, an electron is a point particle with zero size and no internal structure. If/when we have a theory of quantum gravity this might change, and it might then become meaningful
to talk about compressing an electron.)
If I push the end A of a spring, do I compress it or accelerate it?
Obviously I compress it and accelerate it at the same time, because I
am not pushing the elastic body of the spring but only its point A.
I ask myself: how much of my force is dedicated to compression and how
much to acceleration?
In article <vnttl2$20mb1$1@dont-email.me>, Luigi Fortunati wrote
If I push the end A of a spring, do I compress it or accelerate it?
Obviously I compress it and accelerate it at the same time, because I
am not pushing the elastic body of the spring but only its point A.
I ask myself: how much of my force is dedicated to compression and how
much to acceleration?
In general the spring's center of mass accelerates AND the spring is compressed.
But, it's not correct to say that only part of the applied force is
dedicated to acceleration -- actually, the spring's center-of-mass acceleration is determined by *all* of the applied force, while at the
same time the spring compresses.
In my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/mrjtyuwk there is the force
F of the hand that presses against the car and accelerates it according
to Newton's second law (F=ma).
And then I ask myself (and I ask you): At point A" *of the car* does
only one force arrive (the black force F of the hand) or does the blue reaction force of the car also arrive?
And at point A' *of the hand* does only one force arrive (the blue
reaction force of the car) or does the black force F of the hand also arrive?
the spring's center-of-massand I worked this out in detail for a simple model system.
acceleration is determined by *all* of the applied force, while at the
same time the spring compresses.
The acceleration of the center of mass cannot be determined by *all*For the momentum argument I gave above, it doesn't matter where the
the applied force because that force does NOT act on the center of
mass!
If you refuse to watch my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/mrjtyuwk
you cannot notice that the applied force Fa (black) acts on point A"
and, before it can reach C, it must confront the opposing blue force.
The question is simple: does the opposing blue force in my animation
exist or not?
In article <m1dng8FkasU1@mid.dfncis.de>, I wrote that if we push on
one end of a spring,
the spring's center-of-massand I worked this out in detail for a simple model system.
acceleration is determined by *all* of the applied force, while at the
same time the spring compresses.
I neglected to point out that there's actually a much simpler way of
coming to this same conclusion: simply apply conservation of momentum
to the spring.
That is, consider the spring's total (horizontal) linear momentum p.
Since there's an external force F pushing the spring to the right, p
must change according to Newton's 2nd law (dp/dt = F), i.e., the spring's center of mass must be accelerating to the right at an acceleration
a = F/m_total.
The fact that the spring also has a bunch of internal dynamics isn't
relevant here -- we ony consider the spring's total linear momentum,
and the (horizontal) external force acting on the spring.
In fact, this argument is still true if there's no spring at all, just a
pair of (unconnected) point masses at the ends of the "spring". That is,
if we apply a force F to one mass, leaving the other mass stationary
(i.e., F is applied to mass #1, and there is no force applied to mass #2), the center-of-mass of the two masses (at position xc = (x1 + x2)/2) accelerates with an acceleration
ac = (a1 + a2)/2
= (F/m + 0)/2
= F/(2m)
= F/m_total
even though there the force is only pushing on one of the two masses.
In article <vot1s2$lj72$1@dont-email.me>, Luigi Fortunati wrote
The acceleration of the center of mass cannot be determined by *all*For the momentum argument I gave above, it doesn't matter where the
the applied force because that force does NOT act on the center of
mass!
applied force acts. We only care that it's an external force applied
to *somewhere* in the system of interest (the spring).
Luigi also wrote
If you refuse to watch my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/mrjtyuwk
you cannot notice that the applied force Fa (black) acts on point A"
and, before it can reach C, it must confront the opposing blue force.
Forces don't "reach" points or "confront" other forces. Forces (only)
act on, or are applied to, or push/pull on, objects or points on those objects.
The question is simple: does the opposing blue force in my animation
exist or not?
Yes, there is a reaction force of magnitude F pushing left on the hand.
This force is pushing on the hand, not on the car, so it doesn't affect
the car's motion.
[...] If you refuse to watch my animation [...]
In my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/mrjtyuwk there is the force
F of the hand that presses against the car and accelerates it according
to Newton's second law (F=ma).
And at point A' *of the hand* does only one force arrive (the blue
reaction force of the car) or does the black force F of the hand also arrive?
To answer this we'd have to dig into the the internal structure and compressability of the hand (which is also an extended body), and where
the musles are that are applying the forces. The issues involved would
be similar to the ones I just described for forces acting on the car
point A", but I'm not going to go through this in detail.
In article <vos7hr$gpqq$1@dont-email.me>, Luigi Fortunati writes
In my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/mrjtyuwk there is the force F of the hand that presses against the car and accelerates it according to Newton's second law (F=ma).[[...]]
And at point A' *of the hand* does only one force arrive (the blue reaction force of the car) or does the black force F of the hand also arrive?
In article <m1g9ofFcmipU1@mid.dfncis.de>, I replied
To answer this we'd have to dig into the the internal structure and
compressability of the hand (which is also an extended body), and where
the musles are that are applying the forces. The issues involved would
be similar to the ones I just described for forces acting on the car
point A", but I'm not going to go through this in detail.
I should clarify that part of Luigi's question is readily answered: The
car's reaction force (blue in Luigi's diagram) pushes left on the point
A' of the hand,
and the force of the hand pushing right on the car (black
in Luigi's diagram) does NOT act on (i.e., push on) any part of the hand.
It's the part of Luigi's question that uses the word "only" that's harder
to answer...
In my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/rs4cfxzg body A of 5 particles collides inelastically with body B of 3 particles.
Before the collision, the total momentum p=+2 is entirely owned by
body A
After the collision, it is true that the total momentum does not change
(it always remains equal to p=+2), [[...]]
In fact, at the end of the collision, the positive momentum p=+2 belongs "only" in part to body A (p=+1.25) and the rest has transferred to body B (p=+0.75).
How is it possible that, during the collision, there is a transfer of momentum from body A to body B if the action of body A on body B is
*equal* to the opposite reaction of body B on body A?
And why does this transfer of momentum from A to B not occur in the first three instants and only occurs in instants 4 and 5?
In article <vpd0kg$23r6$1@dont-email.me>, Luigi Fortunati writes:
In my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/rs4cfxzg body A of 5 particles
collides inelastically with body B of 3 particles.
...
How is it possible that, during the collision, there is a transfer of
momentum from body A to body B if the action of body A on body B is
*equal* to the opposite reaction of body B on body A?
The answer is that the momentum transfer during the collision is actually *two-way*, i.e., *each* body transfers some momentum to the other body.
That is, during the collision A's momentum changes (because B transfers
some momentum to A), AND B's momentum changes (because A transfers some momentum to B).
Let's work this out in detail:
Before the collision:
p_A_before = +5
p_B_before = -3
p_total_before = p_A_before+p_B_before = +2
After the collision:
p_A_after = +1.25
p_B_after = +0.75,
p_total_after = p_A_after+p_B_after = +2
Thus, *during* the collision, the bodies momenta change by these amounts:
Delta_p_A = p_A_after-p_A_before = -3.75
Delta_p_B = p_B_after-p_B_before = +3.75
Delta_p_total = Delta_p_A+Delta_p_B = 0
In other words, during the collison B transfers momentum -3.75 to A,
so that A's momentum changes by Delta_p_A=-3.75. AND, during the
collision A transfers momentum +3.75 to B, so that B's momentum changes
by Delta_p_B=+3.75.
the momentum transfer during the collision is actually
*two-way*, i.e., *each* body transfers some momentum to the other body.
That is, during the collision A's momentum changes (because B transfers
some momentum to A), AND B's momentum changes (because A transfers some momentum to B).
[[...]]
In other words, during the collison B transfers momentum -3.75 to A,
so that A's momentum changes by Delta_p_A=-3.75. AND, during the
collision A transfers momentum +3.75 to B, so that B's momentum changes
by Delta_p_B=+3.75.
Body B has a momentum -3 and, therefore, cannot transfer -3.75 to body
A because it does not have it.
In my animation https://www.geogebra.org/m/rs4cfxzg body A of 5 particles collides inelastically with body B of 3 particles.
...
...
In article <vps7vq$3laqc$1@dont-email.me>, Luigi Fortunati replied
Body B has a momentum -3 and, therefore, cannot transfer -3.75 to body
A because it does not have it.
This is mistaken. (Linear) momentum doesn't have an inherent zero point,
so there's never a case where one body doesn't have enough momentum to transfer some to another body. Rather, momentum is analogous to position
on a number line, where being at position -3 doesn't prevent you from moving a distance 3.75 either to the right or to the left.
One way to "see this in action" is to consider what the collision would
look like if analyzed in a different inertial reference frame (IRF). For example, let's consider an IRF which is moving to with a velocity v=-10 (i.e., moving the left at a speed of 10) with respect to Luigi's original IRF. In this new IRF, each velocity is the velocity in Luigi's original
IRF + 10.
In this new IRF, the speeds and momenta before the collision are
v_A_before = +11 --> p_A_before = +55
v_B_before = +9 --> p_B_before = +27
p_total_before = p_A_before+p_B_before = +82
so that after the collision, the total momentum must also be p=+82. Hence the common body of mass 8 must be moving at a speed of p/m = +10.25 after
the collision, and A and B's speeds and momenta after the collision must be
v_A_after = +10.25 --> p_A_after = +51.25
v_B_after = +10.25 --> p_B_after = +30.75
p_total_after = p_A_after+p_B_after = +82
The velocity changes during the collision are thyus
Delta_v_A = v_A_after - v_A_before = +10.25 - +11 = -0.75
Delta_v_B = v_B_after - v_B_before = +10.25 - +9 = +1.25
and the momentum changes during the collision are
Delta_p_A = p_A_after-p_A_before = +51.25 - +55 = -3.75
Delta_p_B = p_B_after-p_B_before = +30.75 - +27 = +3.75
Notice how the velocity changes during the collision, AND the momentum changes and A <--> B transfers during the collision, are exactly the same
as when we analyzed the collision in Luigi's original IRF.
The animation https://www.geogebra.org/classic/hxvcaphh shows how two
rigid bodies interact when they collide head-on.
When body A comes into contact with body B, an often imperceptible contraction occurs (first phase) and a subsequent elastic return to the initial form (second phase).
The quantitative model is the following, before the collision the
masses are both equal to 1 (m_A=1 and m_B=1), the initial velocities
are vi_A=+1 and vi_B=-1, and the momentum quantities are pi_A=+1 and p_Bi=-1.
In the first phase of the collision, a compression zone and a pair of
action and reaction forces F1 and F2 are activated simultaneously in
the contact area (the compression is the cause, the opposite forces are
the effects).
The force F1 slows the motion of body B to the left until it stops and
the force F2 does the same, slowing the motion of body A to the right
until it stops (the forces are the cause, the decelerations are the effects).
During this phase, the changes in the value of the two opposing blue
and red action and reaction forces are displayed.
When the two bodies have stopped, the contraction is at maximum (1),
the velocities have become zero and the opposing forces measure F1=+1
and F2=-1.
You can stop the motion at this moment with the "Max compression"
button.
In the second phase of the impact, the opposing forces F1 and F2
accelerate the two bodies A and B in the opposite direction until the initial position of contact where both the compression, the forces and
the acceleration cease to exist.
From this point on, the motion of the two bodies returns to being
inertial, the velocities have been inverted:
body A from vi_A=+1 to vf_A=-1 and body B from vi_B=-1 to vf_B=+1
and the quantities of motion as well:
body A from pi_A=+1 to pf_A=-1 and body B from pi_B=-1 to pf_B=+1.
All this is very simple because the 2 bodies have the same mass but
things get complicated when we choose to increase (with the appropriate button) the mass of body A from m_A=1 to m_A=2 because, to the main contraction between the particles A1 and B1, the secondary compression between A2 and A1 is added whose action on the left concerns
exclusively body A, while that on the right concerns both body A and
body B.
But I will talk about this in the next post because here I have gone on
too long.
The animation https://www.geogebra.org/classic/hxvcaphh shows how two
rigid bodies interact when they collide head-on.
...
So, the new law is defined as follows: "For every action there is a corresponding opposite reaction depending on the ratio between the two masses expressed by the equation FA_B=-F_BA(1+(mA-mB)^2/(mA+mB))".
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