• Re: Cantor's diagonal arguments are invalid

    From Ross Finlayson@ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com to sci.logic on Mon Sep 28 11:36:20 2026
    From Newsgroup: sci.logic

    On 06/30/2015 06:24 PM, Virgil wrote:
    In article <50b4624a-fd59-42b4-a988-64987b8637a8@googlegroups.com>,
    Julio Di Egidio <julio@diegidio.name> wrote:

    On Tuesday, June 30, 2015 at 7:20:49 AM UTC+1, Virgil wrote:
    In article <7cdade36-3dd3-4b73-a5f5-dc56d7fce042@googlegroups.com>,
    Julio Di Egidio <j***@diegidio.name> wrote:
    <snip>
    Use any formalisation you like,
    the argument is still flawed, logically already.

    I see no such logical flaw in either of Cantor's two independent proofs
    of the uncountability of the set of real numbers. Perhqps Julio can give >>> is specifics.

    Will try:

    Cantor's First Proof is not the concern here (although, IMO, it fails for the
    same essential reason), I am focusing on the class of so called "diagonal
    argument"s here. And the issue is already logical (the very problem
    statement is broken! so to speak), hence it does not matter the
    formalisation. In particular, it does not matter whether we take a
    constructive approach as in Cantor's Diagonal Argument vs. an axiomatic
    approach as in Cantor's Theorem vs. any approach really, as long as it is a >> "diagonal argument": a real number *is* what it is regardless.

    Cantor's anti-diagonal proof shows that any set of all functions from |N >>> to any set having more than one element is uncountable!

    A real number is just not a function from N to an alphabet. \

    Every real number between 0 and 1 is representable by a function from |N
    to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}

    That is the
    key point, that your proposition is meaningless.

    If it were meaningless, nits like you and WM would not even bother to
    fight so futilely against it!


    As for what diagonalisation actually is, the mathematical details are up to >> the mathematicians, but few things seem logical to me (few informal
    thoughts): i) When we diagonalise a complete list of rational numbers, we >> certainly do *not* get a real number (as explained).

    The finite decimal subsequences of ANY non-terminating sequence of
    decimal digits following a decimal point form a monotone increasing
    bounded sequence of rationals so must have a real number as their limit!


    ii) The sequence we get
    rather is a (kind of) paradoxical construction, of which we can prove, but >> just per definition (!), that it differs from every entry in the list, yet we
    cannot (!) prove that it is not in the list by any inductive method
    (equivalently, the search cannot halt).

    In any logically coherent system, anything that provably differs from
    every member of a list is not listed in that list!

    iii) That specifically means: the
    formal system cannot prove it, just the logic requires it.

    The I, for one, put my trust in the logic. But
    Then, whichever
    the (logical) resolution there (of course there is a resolution), the
    mathematics either does not halt, or does not compile already, otherwise we >> need an "extended" mathematics (actual infinities, mathematically).


    Without actual infinities, one does not even have a set of all naturals
    or a set of all rationals, or anything like infinite sequences to take
    limits of.

    a real number
    *is* the limit of a sequence, not just
    a sequence, even in ZFC: i.e. modulo
    structural equivalence.

    But there is no more than one decimal digit sequence for any irrational
    number and no more than two for any rational number,

    Hardly a sequitur, anyway essentially wrong: a rational fractional expansion >> consists of two finite strings, anti-period and period, each with arbitrary >> length. Now, in the finite

    The whole point is that in your pseudo-finite world one can not even
    have a set of all naturals, much less a set of all rationals or a set of
    all reals.


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  • From Ross Finlayson@ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com to sci.logic on Mon Sep 28 11:36:42 2026
    From Newsgroup: sci.logic

    On 07/02/2015 09:36 AM, Ross A. Finlayson wrote:
    It is the sweep function
    that is uniquely being a
    counterexample among the
    number-theoretic uncount-
    ability results.

    For the set theoretic results
    there is a theory of ubiquitous
    ordinals where powerset is simply
    enough order type and successor
    (i.e, "bigger").

    There is also "A function surjects
    the rational mumbers onto the
    irrational numbers", another number-
    theoretic result due their density,
    but that is of the ordered field,
    not the integers.


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  • From Ross Finlayson@ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com to sci.logic on Mon Sep 28 11:39:01 2026
    From Newsgroup: sci.logic

    On 07/14/2015 06:23 AM, Ross A. Finlayson wrote:
    Prove that measure([0,1]) = 1.


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  • From Ross Finlayson@ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com to sci.logic on Tue Sep 29 09:47:53 2026
    From Newsgroup: sci.logic

    On 09/28/2026 11:36 AM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On 06/30/2015 06:24 PM, Virgil wrote:
    In article <50b4624a-fd59-42b4-a988-64987b8637a8@googlegroups.com>,
    Julio Di Egidio <julio@diegidio.name> wrote:

    On Tuesday, June 30, 2015 at 7:20:49 AM UTC+1, Virgil wrote:
    In article <7cdade36-3dd3-4b73-a5f5-dc56d7fce042@googlegroups.com>,
    Julio Di Egidio <j***@diegidio.name> wrote:
    <snip>
    Use any formalisation you like,
    the argument is still flawed, logically already.

    I see no such logical flaw in either of Cantor's two independent proofs >>>> of the uncountability of the set of real numbers. Perhqps Julio can
    give
    is specifics.

    Will try:

    Cantor's First Proof is not the concern here (although, IMO, it fails
    for the
    same essential reason), I am focusing on the class of so called
    "diagonal
    argument"s here. And the issue is already logical (the very problem
    statement is broken! so to speak), hence it does not matter the
    formalisation. In particular, it does not matter whether we take a
    constructive approach as in Cantor's Diagonal Argument vs. an axiomatic
    approach as in Cantor's Theorem vs. any approach really, as long as
    it is a
    "diagonal argument": a real number *is* what it is regardless.

    Cantor's anti-diagonal proof shows that any set of all functions
    from |N
    to any set having more than one element is uncountable!

    A real number is just not a function from N to an alphabet. \

    Every real number between 0 and 1 is representable by a function from |N
    to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}

    That is the
    key point, that your proposition is meaningless.

    If it were meaningless, nits like you and WM would not even bother to
    fight so futilely against it!


    As for what diagonalisation actually is, the mathematical details are
    up to
    the mathematicians, but few things seem logical to me (few informal
    thoughts): i) When we diagonalise a complete list of rational
    numbers, we
    certainly do *not* get a real number (as explained).

    The finite decimal subsequences of ANY non-terminating sequence of
    decimal digits following a decimal point form a monotone increasing
    bounded sequence of rationals so must have a real number as their limit!


    ii) The sequence we get
    rather is a (kind of) paradoxical construction, of which we can
    prove, but
    just per definition (!), that it differs from every entry in the
    list, yet we
    cannot (!) prove that it is not in the list by any inductive method
    (equivalently, the search cannot halt).

    In any logically coherent system, anything that provably differs from
    every member of a list is not listed in that list!

    iii) That specifically means: the
    formal system cannot prove it, just the logic requires it.

    The I, for one, put my trust in the logic. But
    Then, whichever
    the (logical) resolution there (of course there is a resolution), the
    mathematics either does not halt, or does not compile already,
    otherwise we
    need an "extended" mathematics (actual infinities, mathematically).


    Without actual infinities, one does not even have a set of all naturals
    or a set of all rationals, or anything like infinite sequences to take
    limits of.

    a real number
    *is* the limit of a sequence, not just
    a sequence, even in ZFC: i.e. modulo
    structural equivalence.

    But there is no more than one decimal digit sequence for any irrational >>>> number and no more than two for any rational number,

    Hardly a sequitur, anyway essentially wrong: a rational fractional
    expansion
    consists of two finite strings, anti-period and period, each with
    arbitrary
    length. Now, in the finite

    The whole point is that in your pseudo-finite world one can not even
    have a set of all naturals, much less a set of all rationals or a set of
    all reals.




    It's so that retro-finitism or ultra-finitism are incomplete in
    terms of analysis.


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  • From Ross Finlayson@ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com to sci.logic on Tue Sep 29 09:49:19 2026
    From Newsgroup: sci.logic

    On 09/28/2026 11:36 AM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On 07/02/2015 09:36 AM, Ross A. Finlayson wrote:
    It is the sweep function
    that is uniquely being a
    counterexample among the
    number-theoretic uncount-
    ability results.

    For the set theoretic results
    there is a theory of ubiquitous
    ordinals where powerset is simply
    enough order type and successor
    (i.e, "bigger").

    There is also "A function surjects
    the rational mumbers onto the
    irrational numbers", another number-
    theoretic result due their density,
    but that is of the ordered field,
    not the integers.




    "Finlayson's slate for sweep" again,
    why not just let the Pythagoreans & Cantorians
    fight forever?

    On a boat, in their paradise, ....


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  • From Ross Finlayson@ross.a.finlayson@gmail.com to sci.logic on Tue Sep 29 09:50:54 2026
    From Newsgroup: sci.logic

    On 09/28/2026 11:39 AM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On 07/14/2015 06:23 AM, Ross A. Finlayson wrote:
    Prove that measure([0,1]) = 1.




    The natural/unit equivalency function gives it neatly
    since "extent" for "extent, density, completeness, measure".


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