From Newsgroup: comp.theory
https://sourceforge.net/projects/cscall/files/MisFiles/Coll-proof-en.txt/download
...[cut]
[Note] Q= Proposition P(n)=True if P(1) to P(log(n)) can be proven true. Is it
true that Q can prove that P(n) is true for all integers n, nreN1?
Is the second question a problem that is formally undecidable? -----------
Also, if interested, the link is about the proof of Collatz Problem (all whole numbers >=1 will iterate to 1). But, I think that proof is enough now.
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