From Newsgroup: alt.history.what-if
In Our Time Line: -
1.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charlemagne and his son
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Louis_the_Pious reigned over the
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carolingian_Empire which, at its height, stretched from to Schleswig in the north to Barcelona in the south-west to south of Rome in the south-east to the
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Morava_(river) on the border of present-day Slovakia in the east.
2. After LouisrCO death in 843, the Carolingian Empire was partitioned into a number of states, the largest of which were
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Francia (which evolved into France) and
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/East_Francia (which evolved into Germany).
3. East Francia had Carolingian (descended from Charlemagne) monarchs until 911. Non-Carolingians were elected in 911 and 919, and the son of the latter was crowned as Holy Roman Emperor in 962.
4. West Francia had Carolingian monarchs until 888 and then some Carolingian and some non-Carolingian monarchs until 987.
5. In 987
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hugh_Capet was elected King of West Francia and his descendants reigned in France until 1792, and then again from 1815 to 1848.
6. France gradually evolved into a unitary state, while Germany/the Holy Roman Empire remained a loose confederation until the Empire was dissolved in 1806. Even to-day the Federal Republic of Germany is (as it says on the tin) a federal state, while the French Republic is a unitary one.
So (historical question) at what point was the biggest shift towards France becoming a unitary state? The reign of
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philip_II_of_France (1180-1223)? IOW how did France and Germany (under
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frederick_Barbarossa who seems to have been a strong ruler) compare in 1180, in terms of how unitary or how loosely fragmented they were?
And (alternate history challenge) what would it have taken to make France a loose confederation like OTL Germany pre-1806, or Germany a unitary state like OTL France?
I have seen it suggested that part of the reason was that there was an uninterrupted line of father-to-son successions in France from the death of Hugh Capet in 996 to the death of
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_I_of_France in 1316. So WI Philip II of France is never born, or is a girl and thus unable to succeed, or dies as a result of the teenage illness referred to in his article? He was the son of his father Louis VIIrCOs third marriage, after the first two had failed to produce a son. Louis VIIrCOs next brother was
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Henry_of_France,_Archbishop_of_Reims
Or WI the
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottonian_dynasty (919-1024), the
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salian_dynasty (1024-1125) or the Hohenstaufen dynasty (1138-1254) had lasted longer?
Or could
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frederick_II,_Holy_Roman_Emperor (reigned 1220-1250) have acted differently so as to prevent the decline of the HRE?
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