From Newsgroup: sci.bio.paleontology

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dP6YxohKN28

I am watching this video on Homonid and Primate evolution and this
speaker, I think Green is his name, lays out the evolution between
H.Sapeins and H. Neanderthal... and notes in a diagram that the
coalecent event between two random humans for an alliel is about 400
thousand years ago and the Human Neanderthal population split would be
about 350 thousand years ago making for many genes, us closer in
relationshiip to Neaderthals than other humans. The same chart though,
says the Sapian-Neaderthal coalesent event was over 850K years ago.
Which made me say?? What?

I tried to find a solid definition of "Coalesent" and what I found was
clear as mud. How does the population not split when the coalesent
event happened?

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From Newsgroup: sci.bio.paleontology

On 12/13/25 2:20 AM, Popping Mad wrote:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dP6YxohKN28

I am watching this video on Homonid and Primate evolution and this
speaker, I think Green is his name, lays out the evolution between
H.Sapeins and H. Neanderthal... and notes in a diagram that the
coalecent event between two random humans for an alliel is about 400
thousand years ago and the Human Neanderthal population split would be
about 350 thousand years ago making for many genes, us closer in relationshiip to Neaderthals than other humans. The same chart though,
says the Sapian-Neaderthal coalesent event was over 850K years ago.
Which made me say?? What?

I tried to find a solid definition of "Coalesent" and what I found was
clear as mud. How does the population not split when the coalesent
event happened?

A coalescent is, more or less, the common ancestor of some particular
locus. Different loci can easily have different coalescents, which may
predate or postdate (or even be the same age as) a split between
species. If there's any polymorphism at a locus at the time of
speciation, for example, the coalescent of that locus must be older than
the speciation event.
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From Newsgroup: sci.bio.paleontology

On 12/13/25 11:08, John Harshman wrote:

On 12/13/25 2:20 AM, Popping Mad wrote:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dP6YxohKN28

I am watching this video on Homonid and Primate evolution and this
speaker, I think Green is his name, lays out the evolution between
H.Sapeins and H. Neanderthal... and notes in a diagram that the
coalecent event between two random humans for an alliel is about 400
thousand years ago and the Human Neanderthal population split would be
about 350 thousand years ago making for many genes, us closer in
relationshiip to Neaderthals than other humans.-a The same chart though,
says the Sapian-Neaderthal coalesent event was over 850K years ago.
Which made me say??-a-a What?

I tried to find a solid definition of "Coalesent"-a and what I found was
clear as mud.-a How does the population not split when the coalesent
event happened?

A coalescent is, more or less, the common ancestor of some particular
locus. Different loci can easily have different coalescents, which may predate or postdate (or even be the same age as) a split between
species. If there's any polymorphism at a locus at the time of
speciation, for example, the coalescent of that locus must be older than
the speciation event.

When seeing the video I became interested in how frequent
chromosomal crossover happens in humans.

Does at least one of the 46 chromosomes in a human tend to
have substantial parts of it crossed over during meiosis
with each generation? Do most of them have crossed over
elements with each generation? Or is it actually pretty
rare, it takes several generations for even one chromosome
to have substantial parts of it crossed over during meiosis?

Then there is that chromosome 2. Are there any residual
abnormalities that can happen with that chromosome as
a result of its previous nature as 2 different chromosomes?

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From Newsgroup: sci.bio.paleontology

On 12/14/25 10:11 PM, x wrote:

On 12/13/25 11:08, John Harshman wrote:

On 12/13/25 2:20 AM, Popping Mad wrote:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dP6YxohKN28

I am watching this video on Homonid and Primate evolution and this
speaker, I think Green is his name, lays out the evolution between
H.Sapeins and H. Neanderthal... and notes in a diagram that the
coalecent event between two random humans for an alliel is about 400
thousand years ago and the Human Neanderthal population split would be
about 350 thousand years ago making for many genes, us closer in
relationshiip to Neaderthals than other humans.-a The same chart though, >>> says the Sapian-Neaderthal coalesent event was over 850K years ago.
Which made me say??-a-a What?

I tried to find a solid definition of "Coalesent"-a and what I found was >>> clear as mud.-a How does the population not split when the coalesent
event happened?

A coalescent is, more or less, the common ancestor of some particular
locus. Different loci can easily have different coalescents, which may
predate or postdate (or even be the same age as) a split between
species. If there's any polymorphism at a locus at the time of
speciation, for example, the coalescent of that locus must be older
than the speciation event.

When seeing the video I became interested in how frequent
chromosomal crossover happens in humans.

Does at least one of the 46 chromosomes in a human tend to
have substantial parts of it crossed over during meiosis
with each generation?-a Do most of them have crossed over
elements with each generation?-a Or is it actually pretty
rare, it takes several generations for even one chromosome
to have substantial parts of it crossed over during meiosis?

Every chromosome has multiple crossover events in each generation.

Then there is that chromosome 2.-a Are there any residual
abnormalities that can happen with that chromosome as
a result of its previous nature as 2 different chromosomes?

No.

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